18.166 gender of -ing forms?

From: Humanist Discussion Group (by way of Willard McCarty willard.mccarty_at_kcl.ac.uk>
Date: Thu, 26 Aug 2004 07:34:40 +0100

               Humanist Discussion Group, Vol. 18, No. 166.
       Centre for Computing in the Humanities, King's College London
                   www.kcl.ac.uk/humanities/cch/humanist/
                        www.princeton.edu/humanist/
                     Submit to: humanist_at_princeton.edu

         Date: Thu, 26 Aug 2004 07:22:11 +0100
         From: "Yuri Tambovtsev" <yutamb_at_mail.cis.ru>
         Subject: gender differences in the use of ing-forms

Dear Humanist colleagues, we study the differences in the use of the
ing-forms (Gerund, Participle 1 and Verbal Noun) in the texts of the male
and female writers. We also try to find out if there is any difference in
the texts of the American and British writers in this respect. The
differences are studied with the help of "chi-square" criterion. It is also
interesting if there is any time difference. I mean writers of the 18th,
19th, or 20th centuries. I could never find any publications in this
respect. May be, you could advice me any? Looking forward to hearing from
you soon to <mailto:yutamb_at_hotmail.com>yutamb_at_hotmail.com Yours sincerely
Yuri Tambovtsev
Received on Thu Aug 26 2004 - 02:51:23 EDT

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.2.0 : Thu Aug 26 2004 - 02:51:24 EDT